Free PTCB practice test

1.2 — Therapeutic duplications

A patient's medication profile shows they are currently taking pantoprazole. Which of the following, if added, would represent a therapeutic duplication?

• A. omeprazole
• B. montelukast
• C. allopurinol
• D. finasteride

1.6 — Indications of medications

A pharmacy technician is entering a prescription for famotidine oral suspension for a pediatric patient who is 6 months old. Which use is an indicated treatment for this age group?

• A. Treatment of active duodenal ulcer disease
• B. Treatment of active gastric ulcer disease
• C. Treatment of pathological hypersecretory disease
• D. Treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease

1.2 — Therapeutic duplications

A patient's medication profile shows they are currently taking sertraline. Which of the following, if added, would represent a therapeutic duplication?

• A. simvastatin
• B. digoxin
• C. azithromycin
• D. fluoxetine

1.1 — Generic names, brand names, and classifications

Meloxicam belongs to which therapeutic class?

• A. Other centrally acting agents
• B. First-generation cephalosporins
• C. Oxicams
• D. Intermediate-acting sulfonamides

1.8 — Proper storage of medications

A pharmacy technician is checking stock for Albuterol Sulfate Inhalation Aerosol NDC 70518-4528-00 with a labeled net weight of 6.7 g. How many inhalations should each canister contain?

• A. 90 inhalations per canister
• B. 120 inhalations per canister
• C. 108 inhalations per canister
• D. 200 inhalations per canister

1.5 — Side effects, adverse effects, allergies

In adults with schizophrenia receiving risperidone tablets in fixed-dose clinical trials, which adverse reaction was shown to be dose-related?

• A. Sedation symptoms with risperidone tablets
• B. Weight-gain symptoms with risperidone tablets
• C. Extrapyramidal symptoms with risperidone tablets
• D. Gastrointestinal symptoms with risperidone tablets

1.1 — Generic names, brand names, and classifications

What is the generic name for the brand-name product Lexapro?

• A. levetiracetam
• B. ondansetron
• C. potassium chloride
• D. escitalopram

1.7 — Drug stability

A water-containing topical cream is compounded from a nonsterile, non-manufactured formulation with no available stability data on July 2, 2026. Per USP beyond-use dating guidelines, what is the beyond-use date?

• A. August 31, 2026
• B. August 1, 2026
• C. December 29, 2026
• D. July 16, 2026

1.4 — Strengths/doses, dosage forms, routes, handling, duration

A hospital pharmacy technician is preparing a high-dose parenteral furosemide infusion as ordered. After the pH is adjusted to above 5.5, which solution is appropriate for adding the furosemide?

• A. Sodium Chloride Injection USP
• B. Labetalol parenteral medication
• C. Milrinone parenteral medication
• D. Ciprofloxacin parenteral medication

1.3 — Drug interactions and contraindications

A patient taking tramadol hydrochloride tablets also needs therapy with fluoxetine, a CYP2D6 inhibitor. Which adverse reactions are associated with this concomitant use?

• A. Decreased opioid efficacy, withdrawal syndrome, and pain
• B. Respiratory depression, sedation, and opioid toxicity
• C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and QT prolongation
• D. Opioid withdrawal, seizures, and serotonin syndrome

2.3 — Receiving, storing, ordering, labeling, dispensing, returning, take-back, loss/theft, destruction of controlled substances

A pharmacy registrant is recording controlled substance finished forms that were distributed or otherwise disposed of, such as by destruction. Which detail must be included in that record?

• A. The prescriber's name and diagnosis code
• B. The date and manner of distribution or disposal
• C. The lot number and storage temperature log
• D. The patient's name and medication pickup time

2.6 — DSCSA serialization, tracking, tracing, quarantining

For a human over-the-counter (OTC) drug, which labeling content is included within the applicable definition?

• A. Only directions needed to enable safe administration of the drug.
• B. Only the principal display panel and immediate container statements.
• C. All text, tables, and figures, including Drug Facts labeling.
• D. All veterinary-use labeling accompanying the drug for proper use.

2.1 — Storage, handling, disposal of hazardous and non-hazardous substances and wastes

After a substance has been deposited into a collection receptacle, what is the required treatment of that substance?

• A. Count it only if sorting and inventorying are avoided.
• B. Avoid counting, sorting, inventorying, or otherwise individually handling it.
• C. Sort it only if counting and inventorying are avoided.
• D. Inventory it only if counting and sorting are avoided.

2.2 — Controlled substance prescriptions and DEA schedules

For Schedule II coverage of salts, compounds, derivatives, or preparations that are chemically equivalent or identical with specified opium-related substances, which group is excluded?

• A. The salts of isomers of cocaine
• B. The ecgonine derivatives of coca leaves
• C. The isoquinoline alkaloids of opium
• D. The phenanthrene alkaloids of opium

2.2 — Controlled substance prescriptions and DEA schedules

When issuing a prescription for gamma-hydroxybutyric acid, what must the practitioner note on the face of the prescription?

• A. The patient's consent to receive the prescription
• B. The patient's medical need for the prescription
• C. The patient's prior treatment history for the prescription
• D. The patient's diagnosis code for the prescription

2.4 — Restricted drug programs (pseudoephedrine, REMS)

For maintenance-of-records purposes, which substance is identified by other names including GBL, Dihydro-2(3H)-furanone, and 1,4-Butanolide?

• A. Ephedrine and its salts
• B. Ergocristine and its salts
• C. Gamma-Butyrolactone
• D. Hypophosphorous acid and its salts

2.4 — Restricted drug programs (pseudoephedrine, REMS)

A person manufactures a chemical mixture containing ergocristine and its salts, and DEA has officially notified the person that its application for exemption has been denied. What must occur for the person to receive a temporary exemption from the registration requirement after that denial?

• A. DEA issues preliminary approval of the registration application on or before 30 days following the denial notice.
• B. DEA receives a renewed application for exemption on or before 30 days following the denial notice.
• C. DEA receives a properly completed application for registration on or before 30 days following the denial notice.
• D. DEA receives a properly completed application for registration before issuing the exemption denial notice.

2.5 — FDA requirements for medication recalls

For a general and continuing guaranty covering each future shipment or delivery under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, what is guaranteed about the article as of the shipment or delivery date?

• A. It is not adulterated or misbranded and is not barred from interstate commerce under sections 404, 505, or 512.
• B. It is not contaminated or misbranded and is not barred from interstate commerce under sections 404, 506, or 512.
• C. It is not adulterated or misbranded and is not detained from interstate commerce under sections 404, 505, or 701.
• D. It is not adulterated or mislabeled and is not barred from intrastate commerce under sections 403, 505, or 512.

2.1 — Storage, handling, disposal of hazardous and non-hazardous substances and wastes

A collector wants to receive and destroy mail-back packages as an authorized collection activity. Where may the collector perform this activity?

• A. At an authorized collection location with a collection receptacle installed
• B. At any controlled premises after the packages are opened and sorted
• C. At an authorized registered location with an on-site method of destruction
• D. At any registered location that uses an off-site destruction contractor

2.3 — Receiving, storing, ordering, labeling, dispensing, returning, take-back, loss/theft, destruction of controlled substances

For a person registered or authorized to reverse distribute controlled substances, records must be maintained for controlled substances acquired for what purpose?

• A. Return or recall to the manufacturer or to another registrant authorized to accept returns on the manufacturer's behalf
• B. Destruction by the reverse distributor or transfer to a researcher authorized to analyze returned substances
• C. Export to a foreign purchaser or import from a supplier authorized to act on the manufacturer's behalf
• D. Dispensing to patients or to another pharmacy authorized to process returns on the patient's behalf

3.3 — Issues requiring pharmacist intervention

A prescription is presented for aripiprazole. The patient's profile shows they are already taking risperidone, a medication in the same therapeutic class. What should the pharmacy technician do?

• A. Refer the prescription to the pharmacist for clinical review before dispensing.
• B. Dispense a partial quantity until the duplication is resolved.
• C. Contact the prescriber to cancel the new prescription without pharmacist input.
• D. Fill the prescription as written since it is a valid, active prescription.

3.4 — Event reporting (MedWatch, VAERS, RCA, CQI)

A pharmacy customer asks who is allowed to submit a VAERS report after a vaccination. Which response is accurate?

• A. Only a health care provider may submit a VAERS report.
• B. Any person may submit a VAERS report.
• C. Only a state immunization program may submit a VAERS report.
• D. Only the vaccine manufacturer may submit a VAERS report.

3.2 — Error prevention strategies

A prescriber enters an incorrect medication dose, but pharmacy staff catch the error before dispensing it and the patient is not harmed. How is this event best classified?

• A. A nonpreventable adverse drug event
• B. An ameliorable adverse drug event
• C. A potential adverse drug event
• D. An adverse drug reaction

3.1 — High-alert/risk and LASA medications

Per FDA's Name Differentiation Project, which of the following drug names is a look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) pair with Risperidone, warranting tall man lettering to distinguish them?

• A. Ropinirole
• B. Migalastat
• C. Medroxyprogesterone
• D. Tolazamide

3.3 — Issues requiring pharmacist intervention

A prescription is presented for glipizide. The patient's profile shows they are already taking glimepiride, a medication in the same therapeutic class. What should the pharmacy technician do?

• A. Fill the prescription as written since it is a valid, active prescription.
• B. Refer the prescription to the pharmacist for clinical review before dispensing.
• C. Contact the prescriber to cancel the new prescription without pharmacist input.
• D. Dispense a partial quantity until the duplication is resolved.

3.4 — Event reporting (MedWatch, VAERS, RCA, CQI)

A pharmacy technician is asked what it means when an adverse event has been reported to VAERS after a vaccination. Which explanation is accurate?

• A. The report means the vaccine caused the event after symptoms were medically confirmed.
• B. The report means CDC verified the vaccine as the most likely cause of symptoms.
• C. The report means FDA determined the symptoms were preventable vaccine reactions.
• D. The report means symptoms occurred after vaccination, not that the vaccine caused the event.

3.5 — Types of prescription errors

During hospital medication error classification, an order for regular-release metoprolol was entered instead of extended-release metoprolol. The error reached the patient and could have required monitoring or intervention to prevent harm. Which category applies?

• A. Category D
• B. Category B
• C. Category E
• D. Category C

3.6 — Infection prevention and cleaning standards

A retail pharmacy provides healthcare services outside a traditional hospital or clinic. Under CDC core infection-prevention scope, how is this setting treated?

• A. It is included among settings where the practices apply.
• B. It is limited to facilities performing surgical procedures.
• C. It is covered only when operating as a clinic.
• D. It is excluded unless patients are admitted overnight.

3.2 — Error prevention strategies

A pharmacy technician is selecting stock bottles while filling prescriptions in a hospital pharmacy. Which description best matches look-alike and sound-alike medications?

• A. Similar therapeutic effects and dosing schedules but completely different package sizes
• B. Similar names and physical appearance but completely different pharmaceutical properties
• C. Similar storage requirements and expiration dates but completely different brand manufacturers
• D. Similar labeling formats and barcode locations but completely different dispensing systems

3.1 — High-alert/risk and LASA medications

Per FDA's Name Differentiation Project, which of the following drug names is a look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) pair with Chlorpropamide, warranting tall man lettering to distinguish them?

• A. Dimenhydrinate
• B. Chlorpromazine
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Nifedipine

4.4 — Returning dispensable, non-dispensable, expired medications

A pharmacy registrant has a controlled substance that must be disposed of and will not destroy it on-site. Which action is an allowable disposal method?

• A. Deliver it to a reverse distributor's registered location by common or contract carrier.
• B. Send it to a hazardous-waste vendor that does not hold a DEA registration.
• C. Transfer it to another retail pharmacy for storage until pickup is available.
• D. Place it with general pharmaceutical waste after documenting the drug name.

4.1 — Formulas, calculations, conversions, sig codes, days supply

A child weighing 66 lb is prescribed 15 mg/kg/day in 3 divided doses. What is the dose in milligrams per administration?

• A. 300 mg
• B. 450 mg
• C. 330 mg
• D. 150 mg

4.4 — Returning dispensable, non-dispensable, expired medications

A pharmacy technician must decide whether stock that a manufacturer has issued a recall notice for may be accepted into pharmacy stock. What should the technician do?

• A. Return it to pharmacy stock for resale.
• B. Relabel it and dispense it to a different patient.
• C. Do not return it to pharmacy stock; quarantine it and handle it per the applicable disposal or return procedure.
• D. Give it back to the patient to keep at home.

4.3 — Lot numbers, expiration dates, NDC numbers

A medication's National Drug Code (NDC) is printed on the manufacturer's label as 7581-9065-29 (a 4-4-2 format, 10 digits total). What is the correct 11-digit NDC, as required for insurance billing?

• A. 7581-9065-029
• B. 7581-09065-29
• C. 75810-9065-29
• D. 07581-9065-29

4.2 — Equipment and supplies for drug administration

A patient is prescribed 95 units of U-100 insulin per dose. Which syringe size is most appropriate to measure this dose precisely?

• A. 1 mL (100-unit) syringe
• B. 0.5 mL (50-unit) syringe
• C. 3 mL general-purpose syringe (not marked in insulin units)
• D. 0.3 mL (30-unit) syringe

4.2 — Equipment and supplies for drug administration

A patient is prescribed 65 units of U-100 insulin per dose. Which syringe size is most appropriate to measure this dose precisely?

• A. 0.5 mL (50-unit) syringe
• B. 1 mL (100-unit) syringe
• C. 3 mL general-purpose syringe (not marked in insulin units)
• D. 0.3 mL (30-unit) syringe

4.2 — Equipment and supplies for drug administration

A patient is prescribed 60 units of U-100 insulin per dose. Which syringe size is most appropriate to measure this dose precisely?

• A. 0.3 mL (30-unit) syringe
• B. 3 mL general-purpose syringe (not marked in insulin units)
• C. 0.5 mL (50-unit) syringe
• D. 1 mL (100-unit) syringe

4.3 — Lot numbers, expiration dates, NDC numbers

A manufacturer's label lists the expiration date as 01/2027 (month and year only, no specific day). Through what date may this medication be dispensed and used?

• A. February 1, 2027
• B. January 31, 2027
• C. January 1, 2027
• D. December 31, 2026

4.1 — Formulas, calculations, conversions, sig codes, days supply

A child weighs 66 lb. The order is 30 mg/kg/day divided into 4 equal doses. How many milligrams are given per dose?

• A. 495 mg
• B. 450 mg
• C. 900 mg
• D. 225 mg

4.1 — Formulas, calculations, conversions, sig codes, days supply

A child weighing 110 lb is prescribed 5 mg/kg/day in 4 divided doses. What is the dose in milligrams per administration?

• A. 250 mg
• B. 125 mg
• C. 62.5 mg
• D. 137.5 mg